This is a sample of the Test for the First Segment of the Course. For a couple questions on this test, multiple answers might be accepted as correct ... you should use the test primarily as a guide to the format of the multiple choice tests for the course. Also note that because questions are randomly drawn from a large master list, some of these questions may appear on your test. There may also be similar appearing questions that do not have the same correct answers. There will be 50 questions on the actual test for this section.

 

1. †† The "dynamics" in the psychoanalytic term "psychodynamics" most clearly refers to the:

(a) inevitable conflict between different family members during a child's first five to six years of life.

(b) relations among the various psychological forces hidden within the individual.

(c) differences in temperament among individuals.

(d) observations that the behavior of normal people is filled with meaningful activities, whereas that of people with major problems seems to be less active and meaningful.

 

2. †† The id, ego, and superego are best regarded as a theory about:

(a) three types of defense mechanisms that interfere with wish fulfillment.

(b) three different sets of reaction patterns within each personality.

(c) three separate stages in personality development.

(d) three distinct types of unconscious conflict.

 

3. †† According to Freudís theory, the †††††††††††††† operates according to the pleasure principle, and the ††††††††††††††††† operates according to the reality principle.

(a) id; superego.

(b) superego; ego.

(c) ego; superego.

(d) id; ego.

 

4. †† What is the purpose of a defense mechanism?

(a) It keeps the id from dominating people's thoughts.

(b) It defends the consciousness against anxiety.

(c) It keeps the superego happy.

(d) It allows successful transition from one stage of development to the next.

 

5. †† Which of the following types of evidence was NOT used by Freud to test psychoanalytic theory?

(a) slips of the tongue

(b) dreams

(c) free associations

(d) experimental data

 

 

6. †† "Trait" theories in general hold that:

(a) different situations have characteristics that elicit entirely different behaviors.

(b) a person's behavior is in many ways consistent over time.

(c) all people have certain characteristics in common.

(d) the search for patterns in personality is misguided.

 

7. †† The best available predictor of future behavior in a particular situation is:

(a) the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.

(b) the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test.

(c) the California Psychological Inventory.

(d) past behavior in similar situations.

 

8. †† The Barnum effect refers to our tendency to:

(a) accept a very general personality description as an accurate description of ourselves.

(b) believe the descriptions of themselves that others give us, even when their behavior is inconsistent with that description.

(c) exaggerate the positive traits of our personality, and downplay the negative traits.

(d) none of the above

 

9.††† ††††††††††† are devices for assessing personality by presenting unstructured stimuli that elicit responses of many kinds.

(a) Personality inventories

(b) Projective techniques

(c) Taxonomies

(d) Stimulus inventories

 

10.†† ††††††††††† is designed to assess normal subjects, whereas ††††††††††††††††† is designed to assess psychiatric patients.

(a) A projective test; a structured test

(b) A criterion test; a predictive test

(c) The Thematic Apperception Test; the Rorschach test

(d) The CPI; the MMPI

 

11. Situationism is the notion that:

(a) people with certain personality traits are better at performing certain social roles.

(b) personality traits determine the situations in which people feel comfortable or uncomfortable.

(c) it is the characteristics of a situation rather than one's personality traits that determines how one behaves.

(d) none of the above

12. Two persons, Jackie and Liz, are given two tests of fearfulness, both rated on a 10-point scale in which zero means "no fear" and 10 means "maximum fear." In the first test both are confronted with a vicious dog. Here Jackie's fear rating is 9 and Liz's is 5. In the second test both are about to take a difficult examination. Here Jackie's rating is 5 and Liz's is 9. These results are an example of:

(a) person-by-temperament interaction.

(b) factor analysis.

(c) person-by-situation interaction.

(d) a personality test with poor construct validity.

 

13. The claim that genetic factors contribute to personality is supported by the fact that:

(a) different people have different reactions in the same situation.

(b) between-family differences change very little over time.

(c) an aggressive child is likely to become an aggressive adult.

(d) identical twins are more alike than fraternal twins on some personality measures.

 

14. In discussing cross-cultural patterns of emotion your text notes that:

(a) the patterns of physiological reaction underlying emotions are probably universal.

(b) the facial expressions of emotion appear to be universal.

(c) the particular experiences that elicit specific emotions appear to vary from culture to culture.

(d) all of the above

(e) a and b only

 

15. Members of collectivist societies are most likely to agree with which of the following statements?

(a) "Only those who depend on themselves get ahead in life."

(b) "It is the role of the in-group to serve the needs of the out-group."

(c) "I feel I must subordinate my own wishes to the demands and needs of my family."

(d) "The best way to help one's family is to cease being a burden to them."

 

16. Two major functions for motivation are activating and ††††††††††† behavior.

(a) mechanizing

(b) stopping or inhibiting

(c) establishing homeostasis for

(d) socializing

(e) directing or guiding

 

 

17. In positive feedback systems:

(a) the feedback weakens or stops the response that produces it.

(b) the feedback strengthens the response that produces it.

(c) the feedback may either stop or strengthen the response that produces it depending upon the level of the set-point.

(d) the feedback will stop the response that produces it if the stimulus is below the set-point and will strengthen it if the stimulus is above the set-point.

 

18. When a rat or a person is satiated and wants no more food, the liver converts:

(a) fat to glycogen.

(b) fat to glucose.

(c) glucose to glycogen.

(d) glycogen to glucose.

 

19. Electrical stimulation of the ventromedial region of the hypothalamus leads to:

(a) maintenance of a new body weight level.

(b) the cessation of eating.

(c) hyperphagia.

(d) experience of hunger.

 

20. When rats shy away from a food that they have never tasted before, they are being affected by:

(a) nutriphobia.

(b) starvation.

(c) hyperphobia.

(d) neophobia.

 

21. The externality hypothesis of obesity suggests that:

(a) people become obese because certain genetic factors make them feel hungry all the time.

(b) people become obese when they try to ignore social cues for the proper time and amount to eat .

(c) people become obese because our culture sends mixed messages about the desirability of eating.

(d) people become obese because they are insensitive to their internal state and rely more on external signals telling them it is time to eat.

 

22. The sympathetic nervous system is concerned with:

(a) vegetative functions.

(b) slowing of the heart.

(c) activating function.

(d) digestion.

 

 

23.†† Which of the following bodily organs is linked to the sympathetic nervous system?

(a) the heart

(b) the liver

(c) the salivary glands

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above

 

24.†† When a person is addicted to a drug, withdrawal symptoms usually:

(a) become weaker as the personís tolerance increases.

(b) are the opposite of the effects of the drug.

(c) occur if the drug is a depressant, but not if it is a stimulant.

(d) are similar to the effects of an overdose of the drug.

 

25. Which of the following seems inconsistent with drive reduction theory?

(a) seeking erotic stimulation

(b) seeking saccharin solutions

(c) seeking activity for its own sake

(d) all of the above

 

26. An example of a somatogenic mental disorder is:

(a) diabetes.

(b) hysterical paralysis.

(c) phobia.

(d) general paresis.

 

27. In psychiatric classification, a "syndrome" is:

(a) a pattern of signs and symptoms that usually go together.

(b) a form of disorganized thinking found in schizophrenia.

(c) the key symptom identifying each disorder.

(d) a mental disorder that causes physical damage.

 

28.†† When using the DSM-IV to diagnose a mental disorder, the clinician pays the most attention to describing:

(a) the factors in the patientís past that may have caused symptoms

(b) the statistical likelihood that the patient is dangerous or in danger.

(c) the observable symptoms that the patient is currently experiencing.

(d) an analysis of the disorderís etiology.

 

29. The diathesis-stress model has been a useful way of conceptualizing a number of mental disorders. What does "diathesis" refer to in this model?

(a) economic pressures

(b) environmental conditions

(c) genetic or environmental predispositions

(d) defense mechanisms

(e) age of onset

30. The strong belief that television commercials contain coded messages that are intended especially for you is an example of:

(a) ideas of reference.

(b) hallucination.

(c) disturbance of attention.

(d) losing contact.

 

31. Research into the possible genetic bases of schizophrenia reveal that:

(a) the concordance rate for identical twins is higher than for fraternal twins.

(b) children born of schizophrenic mothers and adopted by normal mothers are more likely to be schizophrenic than adopted children of normal mothers.

(c) the incidence of schizophrenia increases the more closely one is related to a schizophrenic.

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above

 

32. Which is not a symptom of a manic state?

(a) very lively and infectiously merry

(b) extremely talkative and on the go

(c) able to handle frustration easily

(d) very self-confident.

 

33. A lack of norepinephrine has been linked to:

(a) depression.

(b) mania.

(c) schizophrenia.

(d) seasonal affective disorders.

 

34. Unlike other fears, a phobia is:

(a) persistent.

(b) irrational.

(c) unconscious.

(d) intense.

 

35.†† In an anxiety disorder, a behavior such as repetitive hand-washing is called:

(a) an obsession

(b) a compulsion

(c) a dissociation

(d) a specific phobia

 

36. When antidepressant drugs are given to normal subjects, those subjects experience:

(a) depression

(b) euphoria

(c) mania

(d) little or no change in mood

 

 

37. Which of the following is not of interest to the behavior therapist?

(a) the patient's neurotic symptoms

(b) the patient's current circumstances

(c) the patient's unconscious thoughts

(d) the patient's overt behavior

 

38. Cognitive therapists directly attack their patients':

(a) unconscious conflicts.

(b) learning disabilites.

(c) irrational beliefs.

(d) unpleasant emotions.

 

39. Therapists with a humanistic orientation try to identify in each patient:

(a) a set of conditioned fear responses.

(b) a whole, unique, and complex person.

(c) a level of unconscious conflicts.

(d) a system of unrealistic beliefs.

 

40. Your text notes that some therapies work better than others for specific disorders. For example:

(a) humanistic therapy is more effective than client-centered therapy for bipolar disorder.

(b) cognitive therapy is more effective than behavior therapy for panic disorder.

(c) psychotherapy is of little use in bipolar disorders.

(d) b and c only

 

 

ANSWER KEY:

  1. b
  2. b
  3. d
  4. b
  5. d
  6. b
  7. d
  8. a
  9. b
  10. d
  11. c
  12. c
  13. d
  14. d
  15. c
  16. e
  17. b
  18. c
  19. b
  20. d
  21. d
  22. c
  23. d
  24. b
  25. d
  26. d
  27. a
  28. c
  29. c
  30. a
  31. d
  32. c
  33. a
  34. b
  35. b
  36. d
  37. c
  38. c
  39. b
  40. d